ok then the continuation of Goldbach proof: 

second part logic were wrong (in second blog of goldbach conjecture proof)  that if there is none prime from C1 equivalence class, that means number should be like:

 2n /  2 = n 

and   2n being always less than n!  makes this such number be improbable.

unless number is less than value that enables C1 at most 1 more element than 1 element set, then in such case still then Goldbach conjecture wouold be true   e.g. 2*3 in that case. and any more than 1 element in C1 equivalence class results of problem being considered for the solution part where there are more than 1 elements in C1 equivalence class.

So Goldbach conjecture is true for every number is the conclusion yep.