ok then the continuation of Goldbach proof: second part logic were wrong (in second blog of goldbach conjecture proof) that if there is none prime from C1 equivalence class, that means number should be like: 2n / 2 = n and 2n being always less than n! makes this such number be improbable. unless number is less than value that enables C1 at most 1 more element than 1 element set, then in such case still then Goldbach conjecture wouold be true e.g. 2*3 in that case. and any more than 1 element in C1 equivalence class results of problem being considered for the solution part where there are more than 1 elements in C1 equivalence class. So Goldbach conjecture is true for every number is the conclusion yep.
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